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Now given an instance of a schema we cant conclude whether A functionally determines B for the entire relation itself as $A\rightarrow B$ holds for this instance, but it might not hold for the entire schema. But we can conclude this for sure that B doesn’t functionally determine C. So the given 2 statements are not correct. Am I, right?

ago in Databases by (13 points) | 6 views

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Correct - neither. Given only an instance of a DB, you can only rule out incorrect FDs. But you cannot claim that any specific FD necessarily holds.
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